1500 Questions | CFA Program Level II 2026

Detailed Exam Domain CoverageTo ensure you are fully prepared for the exam, this course covers the exact domains and weightings tested on the official syllabus:Ethics and Professional Standards (15%) Topics include Ethical and Professional Standards, Code of Ethics, CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct, Global Investment Performance Standards (GIPS), Duties and Responsibilities of Investment Professionals, Conflicts of Interest, Inside Information, and Trading and Securities Transactions. Quantitative Methods (10%) Topics include Time Series Analysis, Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT), Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), Factor Models, Options Pricing, Black-Scholes Model, Binomial Model, and Interest Rate Derivatives. Investments (35%) Topics include Term Structure of Interest Rates, Bond Valuation, Equity Valuation, Stock Market Equilibrium, Portfolio Optimization, Efficient Frontier, Capital Market Line, and Security Market Line.

Equity (15%) Topics include Security Market Line (SML), Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), Firm-Specific Risk, Market Risk Premium, Earnings Per Share (EPS), Dividend Yield, Price-to-Book (P/B) Ratio, and Enterprise Value (EV). Corporate Issuers (8%) Topics include Stock Compensation, Share-based Payments, Stock Option Plans, Pension and Post-retirement Benefits, Debt Issuance Costs, Capital Structure, Cash Flow Forecasting, and Capital Budgeting. Portfolio Management (12%) Topics include Risk-adjusted Return on Capital, Sharpe Ratio, Information Ratio, Active Portfolio Management, Indexing and Factor-based Investing, Risk Management and Insurance, Global Portfolio Management, and Real Assets.

Alternatives (7%) Topics include Commodity Investing, Currency and Interest Rate Derivatives, Commodities Markets, Currencies and Exchange Rates, Derivatives, Interest Rates and Yields, Alternative Markets, Hedge Funds, and Private Equity. Course DescriptionThe CFA Charter represents the pinnacle of professional achievement in the investment management profession. Passing the second tier requires deep analytical skills and the ability to apply complex valuation frameworks to real-world scenarios.

I have designed this comprehensive mock exam course to simulate the exact difficulty, format, and pressure of the actual certification. This question bank contains 1500 highly realistic practice questions tailored strictly to the current syllabus. I created this massive repository to give you enough testing volume so that no concept feels unfamiliar on test day.

Instead of just telling you what the correct answer is, I have written detailed explanations for every single option. This means you will understand exactly why the right answer is correct and why the distractors are flawed, helping you identify and fix your knowledge gaps instantly. If you are looking for a complete study material supplement to guarantee you pass on your first attempt, this course provides the rigorous testing environment you need.

Practice Questions PreviewQuestion 1: Ethics and Professional Standards An investment management firm wants to claim compliance with the Global Investment Performance Standards (GIPS). Which of the following statements regarding GIPS compliance is most accurate? Options:A) Firms must apply GIPS on a firm-wide basis and cannot claim compliance for a single product or composite.

B) Firms are allowed to claim partial compliance if only their equity funds meet the standard. C) GIPS compliance requires the firm to submit its performance history to the CFA Institute for annual verification. D) Only individual investment professionals, not entire firms, can claim compliance with GIPS.

E) Firms claiming compliance must restate all historical performance data going back to the firm's inception. F) Software vendors providing performance measurement tools can claim GIPS compliance for their systems. Correct Answer: AOverall Explanation: GIPS are ethical standards for calculating and presenting investment performance based on the principles of fair representation and full disclosure.

Option A Explanation: This is correct. GIPS compliance must be applied on a firm-wide basis. A firm cannot claim compliance for a single composite or product while excluding others.

Option B Explanation: This is incorrect. There is no such thing as partial compliance. A firm either complies with all requirements on a firm-wide basis or it does not.

Option C Explanation: This is incorrect. The CFA Institute does not verify compliance. Firms may hire independent third parties for verification, but it is not mandatory.

Option D Explanation: This is incorrect. Only investment management firms can claim compliance with GIPS, not individual professionals. Option E Explanation: This is incorrect.

Firms are required to present a minimum of five years of GIPS-compliant history (or since inception if less than five years), not necessarily all history since inception immediately. Option F Explanation: This is incorrect. Software vendors cannot claim GIPS compliance; only firms that actually manage assets can do so.

Question 2: Quantitative Methods Under the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT), how is the expected return of an asset determined compared to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)? Options:A) APT uses a single market risk premium factor, making it identical to CAPM. B) APT relies on multiple macroeconomic factors rather than a single market portfolio to determine expected return.

C) APT assumes that all investors hold the exact same market portfolio. D) APT requires the strict assumption of normally distributed asset returns. E) APT asserts that asset prices are determined solely by historical price movements.

F) APT calculates expected return based exclusively on firm-specific, idiosyncratic risk. Correct Answer: BOverall Explanation: The Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) is a multi-factor asset pricing model. Unlike CAPM, which relies on a single market factor, APT assumes returns are generated by a set of macroeconomic risk factors.

Option A Explanation: This is incorrect. CAPM uses a single market risk premium factor, whereas APT uses multiple factors. Option B Explanation: This is correct.

APT determines the expected return of a financial asset by modeling it as a linear function of various macroeconomic factors or theoretical market indices. Option C Explanation: This is incorrect. CAPM makes strict assumptions about investors holding the market portfolio; APT does not require this assumption.

Option D Explanation: This is incorrect. APT requires fewer strict assumptions than CAPM and does not explicitly require normally distributed asset returns. Option E Explanation: This is incorrect.

APT focuses on macroeconomic factors (like inflation, interest rates, GDP), not historical price movements (which is technical analysis). Option F Explanation: This is incorrect. APT, like CAPM, assumes that firm-specific (idiosyncratic) risk can be diversified away and only prices systematic risk factors.

Question 3: Portfolio Management An analyst is evaluating a portfolio manager's performance using the Information Ratio. Which of the following best describes what the Information Ratio measures? Options:A) The portfolio's absolute return divided by its total risk (standard deviation).

B) The portfolio's excess return over the risk-free rate divided by its beta. C) The active return of the portfolio divided by the tracking error. D) The portfolio's downside risk relative to a target return threshold.

E) The total return of the portfolio minus the inflation rate. F) The ratio of profitable trades to losing trades over a specific time series. Correct Answer: COverall Explanation: The Information Ratio is a key metric in active portfolio management used to evaluate the skill of a manager in generating returns relative to a benchmark, adjusted for the risk taken to achieve those returns.

Option A Explanation: This is incorrect. This describes the Sharpe Ratio, which measures excess return over the risk-free rate divided by total risk. Option B Explanation: This is incorrect.

This describes the Treynor Ratio, which evaluates excess return relative to systematic risk (beta). Option C Explanation: This is correct. The Information Ratio measures the active return (portfolio return minus benchmark return) divided by the active risk, also known as the tracking error.

Option D Explanation: This is incorrect. Downside risk relative to a target is measured by the Sortino Ratio. Option E Explanation: This is incorrect.

This is simply the real return of the portfolio, not a risk-adjusted ratio. Option F Explanation: This is incorrect. This describes a win/loss ratio or hit rate, which does not account for the magnitude of returns or tracking error.

Welcome to the Mock Exam Practice Tests Academy to help you prepare for your CFA Program Level II. You can retake the exams as many times as you want. This is a huge original question bank.

You get support from me if you have questions. Each question has a detailed explanation. Mobile-compatible with the Udemy app.

I hope that by now you're convinced! And there are a lot more questions inside the course.